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- Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A Hong Kong-based licensed corporation providing depositary services is onboarding a new institutional client, an investment fund domiciled in a jurisdiction identified by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) as having strategic AML/CFT deficiencies. According to the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and relevant SFC guidelines, which of the following actions are required as part of the enhanced due diligence process?
I. Take reasonable measures to identify and verify the ultimate beneficial owners of the investment fund.
II. Obtain approval from the licensed corporation’s senior management before establishing the business relationship.
III. Rely solely on the fund manager’s declaration regarding the source of funds, as they are a professional party.
IV. Implement a system for enhanced and more frequent monitoring of the transactions conducted through the custody account.CorrectThis question assesses the application of enhanced due diligence (EDD) measures under Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and related SFC guidelines. Statement I is correct because identifying and verifying the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs) is a fundamental requirement of customer due diligence, and it is especially critical for a complex structure like an investment fund from a high-risk jurisdiction. Statement II is correct as the AMLO explicitly requires that for high-risk business relationships, a licensed corporation must obtain approval from its senior management to establish or continue the relationship. Statement III is incorrect because EDD mandates taking reasonable measures to establish the source of wealth and source of funds. Relying solely on a client’s self-declaration without independent corroboration is insufficient, particularly for a high-risk client. Statement IV is correct because a key component of managing a high-risk relationship is to conduct enhanced ongoing monitoring of the business relationship, which includes scrutinizing transactions more frequently and intensively to identify any suspicious activity. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
IncorrectThis question assesses the application of enhanced due diligence (EDD) measures under Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and related SFC guidelines. Statement I is correct because identifying and verifying the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs) is a fundamental requirement of customer due diligence, and it is especially critical for a complex structure like an investment fund from a high-risk jurisdiction. Statement II is correct as the AMLO explicitly requires that for high-risk business relationships, a licensed corporation must obtain approval from its senior management to establish or continue the relationship. Statement III is incorrect because EDD mandates taking reasonable measures to establish the source of wealth and source of funds. Relying solely on a client’s self-declaration without independent corroboration is insufficient, particularly for a high-risk client. Statement IV is correct because a key component of managing a high-risk relationship is to conduct enhanced ongoing monitoring of the business relationship, which includes scrutinizing transactions more frequently and intensively to identify any suspicious activity. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
- Question 2 of 30
2. Question
A Hong Kong-based depositary service provider receives an application from a new institutional client whose primary operations are based in a jurisdiction known for having significant deficiencies in its anti-money laundering (AML) framework. What is the depositary’s primary obligation under the AML/CFT Ordinance and related SFC guidelines?
CorrectThe correct answer is that the provider must conduct enhanced due diligence (EDD) to assess and mitigate the higher risks associated with the client. According to Hong Kong’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (For Licensed Corporations), a risk-based approach is mandatory. When a potential client is identified as being from a jurisdiction with higher money laundering or terrorist financing risks, standard due diligence is insufficient. The depositary must take additional steps, such as obtaining more detailed information on the source of wealth and funds, understanding the purpose of the account, and securing senior management approval before establishing the business relationship. This process is known as EDD. Simply applying standard due diligence procedures would be a regulatory breach, as it fails to address the elevated risk profile. Immediately rejecting the business without conducting a proper risk assessment is not the prescribed initial step; the regulations allow for managing high-risk clients provided appropriate mitigating controls (like EDD) are in place. Reporting the application to the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) is premature, as no suspicious transaction has occurred; reporting obligations are triggered by suspicion of illicit activities, not by the client’s origin alone.
IncorrectThe correct answer is that the provider must conduct enhanced due diligence (EDD) to assess and mitigate the higher risks associated with the client. According to Hong Kong’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (For Licensed Corporations), a risk-based approach is mandatory. When a potential client is identified as being from a jurisdiction with higher money laundering or terrorist financing risks, standard due diligence is insufficient. The depositary must take additional steps, such as obtaining more detailed information on the source of wealth and funds, understanding the purpose of the account, and securing senior management approval before establishing the business relationship. This process is known as EDD. Simply applying standard due diligence procedures would be a regulatory breach, as it fails to address the elevated risk profile. Immediately rejecting the business without conducting a proper risk assessment is not the prescribed initial step; the regulations allow for managing high-risk clients provided appropriate mitigating controls (like EDD) are in place. Reporting the application to the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) is premature, as no suspicious transaction has occurred; reporting obligations are triggered by suspicion of illicit activities, not by the client’s origin alone.
- Question 3 of 30
3. Question
A compliance officer at a Hong Kong depositary firm, which provides custody services for a collective investment scheme, notices a series of unusual transactions. The scheme has started receiving frequent, large-value deposits from a third-party entity located in a jurisdiction with known deficiencies in its AML/CFT regime. The transaction pattern is inconsistent with the fund’s stated investment strategy and historical activity. When queried, the fund manager provides an evasive and unsatisfactory explanation. What is the compliance officer’s most critical and immediate obligation under the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO)?
CorrectThe explanation teaches the concept of suspicious transaction reporting under Hong Kong’s anti-money laundering framework. The correct course of action, upon forming a suspicion of money laundering or terrorist financing, is to file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) as soon as is reasonably practicable. This is a primary obligation under the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO). Critically, this report must be made without alerting the client, as doing so would constitute ‘tipping off’, which is a serious offense. The option to immediately terminate the client relationship without reporting is incorrect because the legal duty to report the suspicion to the authorities takes precedence. While termination may be a subsequent commercial decision, it does not fulfill the regulatory reporting requirement. The option to only increase the frequency of monitoring and await further suspicious activity is also incorrect; the obligation to report arises as soon as a suspicion is formed, and delaying the report is a breach of the ordinance. Finally, directly confronting the client with the suspicion and demanding a full explanation before taking action is wrong because it amounts to tipping off, which could prejudice an investigation.
IncorrectThe explanation teaches the concept of suspicious transaction reporting under Hong Kong’s anti-money laundering framework. The correct course of action, upon forming a suspicion of money laundering or terrorist financing, is to file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) as soon as is reasonably practicable. This is a primary obligation under the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO). Critically, this report must be made without alerting the client, as doing so would constitute ‘tipping off’, which is a serious offense. The option to immediately terminate the client relationship without reporting is incorrect because the legal duty to report the suspicion to the authorities takes precedence. While termination may be a subsequent commercial decision, it does not fulfill the regulatory reporting requirement. The option to only increase the frequency of monitoring and await further suspicious activity is also incorrect; the obligation to report arises as soon as a suspicion is formed, and delaying the report is a breach of the ordinance. Finally, directly confronting the client with the suspicion and demanding a full explanation before taking action is wrong because it amounts to tipping off, which could prejudice an investigation.
- Question 4 of 30
4. Question
A large Authorized Institution (AI) in Hong Kong, which is also registered with the SFC to conduct Type 1 regulated activity, provides comprehensive depositary and custody services. In assessing its regulatory obligations, which of the following statements accurately describe the respective roles of the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) and the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) concerning its depositary operations?
I. The HKMA is primarily responsible for the prudential supervision of the AI, including its capital adequacy and overall financial stability.
II. The SFC’s Code of Conduct applies to the AI’s conduct when providing securities custody services as part of its regulated activities.
III. The SFC is solely responsible for setting all anti-money laundering (AML) and counter-terrorist financing (CTF) requirements for the AI’s depositary business.
IV. The AI’s authority to provide securities custody services is exclusively granted and overseen by the HKMA, with the SFC having no jurisdiction.CorrectThis question assesses the understanding of the dual regulatory framework in Hong Kong for financial institutions that are both Authorized Institutions (AIs) under the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) and also registered with the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) to conduct regulated activities. Statement I is correct because the HKMA is the primary regulator for the prudential supervision of all AIs, focusing on their financial soundness, capital adequacy, and liquidity, which are foundational to their ability to provide safe depositary services. Statement II is correct as any entity, including an AI registered with the SFC (known as a Registered Institution), must comply with the SFC’s Code of Conduct concerning the business practices and standards of conduct for its regulated activities, such as securities custody. Statement III is incorrect because while the SFC has its Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, the HKMA also issues its own comprehensive AML/CTF Guideline that applies to the entire AI. The supervision is a joint effort, not the sole responsibility of the SFC. Statement IV is incorrect because when an AI provides depositary services that fall under a regulated activity (e.g., Type 1 – Dealing in Securities, which includes providing custody), it must be registered with the SFC for that activity. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.
IncorrectThis question assesses the understanding of the dual regulatory framework in Hong Kong for financial institutions that are both Authorized Institutions (AIs) under the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) and also registered with the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) to conduct regulated activities. Statement I is correct because the HKMA is the primary regulator for the prudential supervision of all AIs, focusing on their financial soundness, capital adequacy, and liquidity, which are foundational to their ability to provide safe depositary services. Statement II is correct as any entity, including an AI registered with the SFC (known as a Registered Institution), must comply with the SFC’s Code of Conduct concerning the business practices and standards of conduct for its regulated activities, such as securities custody. Statement III is incorrect because while the SFC has its Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, the HKMA also issues its own comprehensive AML/CTF Guideline that applies to the entire AI. The supervision is a joint effort, not the sole responsibility of the SFC. Statement IV is incorrect because when an AI provides depositary services that fall under a regulated activity (e.g., Type 1 – Dealing in Securities, which includes providing custody), it must be registered with the SFC for that activity. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.
- Question 5 of 30
5. Question
A Hong Kong-based depositary service provider is onboarding a new corporate client. During the Know Your Customer (KYC) process, the compliance officer discovers that the ultimate beneficial owner is a Politically Exposed Person (PEP) from a jurisdiction with high corruption risk. Furthermore, the initial funding for the account is a substantial wire transfer from an unrelated third party with the vague description ‘consulting fee’. What is the most appropriate immediate action for the provider to take under the AMLO (Cap. 615)?
CorrectThe correct course of action is to file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) as soon as reasonably practicable. According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO), when a financial institution knows, suspects, or has reasonable grounds to suspect that any property is connected to an indictable offense, it has a mandatory obligation to report it. The combination of a Politically Exposed Person (PEP) from a high-risk jurisdiction, a complex ownership structure, and a vaguely explained, large, third-party payment constitutes strong grounds for suspicion. The institution should also consider freezing the onboarding process and refraining from completing the transaction until it has fulfilled its reporting duties. Informing the client that a report will be filed constitutes ‘tipping off’, which is a serious criminal offense under the AMLO. While enhanced due diligence is required for PEPs, it does not replace the obligation to file an STR when suspicion arises; simply proceeding with enhanced monitoring is insufficient in this case. Seeking further clarification from the client should not delay the filing of an STR once a suspicion has been formed, as the primary duty is to report.
IncorrectThe correct course of action is to file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) as soon as reasonably practicable. According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO), when a financial institution knows, suspects, or has reasonable grounds to suspect that any property is connected to an indictable offense, it has a mandatory obligation to report it. The combination of a Politically Exposed Person (PEP) from a high-risk jurisdiction, a complex ownership structure, and a vaguely explained, large, third-party payment constitutes strong grounds for suspicion. The institution should also consider freezing the onboarding process and refraining from completing the transaction until it has fulfilled its reporting duties. Informing the client that a report will be filed constitutes ‘tipping off’, which is a serious criminal offense under the AMLO. While enhanced due diligence is required for PEPs, it does not replace the obligation to file an STR when suspicion arises; simply proceeding with enhanced monitoring is insufficient in this case. Seeking further clarification from the client should not delay the filing of an STR once a suspicion has been formed, as the primary duty is to report.
- Question 6 of 30
6. Question
A licensed corporation in Hong Kong acts as a depositary for a fund. Its compliance monitoring system flags a pattern of unusually large and rapid fund transfers initiated by an underlying investor to an overseas account in a jurisdiction with weak AML controls. According to the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and related SFC guidelines, what are the appropriate actions for the depositary to take?
I. File a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU).
II. Immediately freeze the investor’s assets to prevent further transfers before any regulatory filing is made.
III. Conduct enhanced due diligence to scrutinise the source of wealth and the purpose of these specific transactions.
IV. Notify the fund manager and delegate the full responsibility for regulatory reporting to them.CorrectUnder Hong Kong’s regulatory framework, particularly the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and the SFC’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, a licensed corporation providing depositary services has direct compliance obligations. Statement I is correct because the identification of complex, unusually large transactions involving a high-risk jurisdiction constitutes reasonable grounds for suspicion. This triggers the legal requirement to file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). Statement III is also correct as the risk-based approach mandates that when high-risk factors are present, the institution must apply enhanced due diligence (EDD) to better understand the client’s profile, source of funds, and the rationale behind the transactions. Statement II is incorrect; a depositary cannot unilaterally freeze client assets based on suspicion alone, as this action typically requires a formal directive from law enforcement or a court order. Their primary duty is to report, not to enforce. Statement IV is incorrect because AML/CTF obligations are independent for each licensed entity. The depositary cannot delegate its legal responsibility to file an STR to the fund manager, even if the fund manager also has its own reporting duties. Therefore, statements I and III are correct.
IncorrectUnder Hong Kong’s regulatory framework, particularly the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and the SFC’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, a licensed corporation providing depositary services has direct compliance obligations. Statement I is correct because the identification of complex, unusually large transactions involving a high-risk jurisdiction constitutes reasonable grounds for suspicion. This triggers the legal requirement to file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). Statement III is also correct as the risk-based approach mandates that when high-risk factors are present, the institution must apply enhanced due diligence (EDD) to better understand the client’s profile, source of funds, and the rationale behind the transactions. Statement II is incorrect; a depositary cannot unilaterally freeze client assets based on suspicion alone, as this action typically requires a formal directive from law enforcement or a court order. Their primary duty is to report, not to enforce. Statement IV is incorrect because AML/CTF obligations are independent for each licensed entity. The depositary cannot delegate its legal responsibility to file an STR to the fund manager, even if the fund manager also has its own reporting duties. Therefore, statements I and III are correct.
- Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A Hong Kong-based depositary is in the process of onboarding a new client, a private investment fund domiciled in a jurisdiction identified by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) as having strategic AML/CFT deficiencies. The fund’s structure involves multiple layers of shell corporations. According to the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (For Licensed Corporations), what is the most critical immediate step the depositary must take?
CorrectThe correct answer is that the depositary must implement enhanced due diligence measures to identify and verify the ultimate beneficial owners and the source of wealth of the fund. According to Hong Kong’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (For Licensed Corporations), a risk-based approach is mandatory. When high-risk factors are present, such as a client from a jurisdiction with known AML/CFT deficiencies (as identified by FATF) and a complex, opaque ownership structure (like multiple shell corporations), standard due diligence is insufficient. The firm is required to apply Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD). This involves taking additional, more stringent measures to understand the client’s background, the nature of its business, its source of wealth and funds, and to identify the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs) behind the corporate layers. The option to proceed with standard client due diligence is incorrect because the presence of clear high-risk indicators legally obligates the firm to escalate its verification processes beyond the standard level. Treating an institutional client from a high-risk jurisdiction with a complex structure as a typical low-risk case would be a significant compliance failure. The suggestion to immediately decline the business relationship without assessment is also incorrect. While the firm may ultimately decide to reject the client, the required regulatory step is to first conduct a thorough risk assessment via EDD to make an informed decision. An automatic rejection without assessment is not the prescribed procedure. Finally, focusing on commercial terms like the service level agreement before completing mandatory AML/CFT checks is a serious breach of regulatory priorities. Compliance obligations must always be satisfied before finalizing a business relationship.
IncorrectThe correct answer is that the depositary must implement enhanced due diligence measures to identify and verify the ultimate beneficial owners and the source of wealth of the fund. According to Hong Kong’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (For Licensed Corporations), a risk-based approach is mandatory. When high-risk factors are present, such as a client from a jurisdiction with known AML/CFT deficiencies (as identified by FATF) and a complex, opaque ownership structure (like multiple shell corporations), standard due diligence is insufficient. The firm is required to apply Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD). This involves taking additional, more stringent measures to understand the client’s background, the nature of its business, its source of wealth and funds, and to identify the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs) behind the corporate layers. The option to proceed with standard client due diligence is incorrect because the presence of clear high-risk indicators legally obligates the firm to escalate its verification processes beyond the standard level. Treating an institutional client from a high-risk jurisdiction with a complex structure as a typical low-risk case would be a significant compliance failure. The suggestion to immediately decline the business relationship without assessment is also incorrect. While the firm may ultimately decide to reject the client, the required regulatory step is to first conduct a thorough risk assessment via EDD to make an informed decision. An automatic rejection without assessment is not the prescribed procedure. Finally, focusing on commercial terms like the service level agreement before completing mandatory AML/CFT checks is a serious breach of regulatory priorities. Compliance obligations must always be satisfied before finalizing a business relationship.
- Question 8 of 30
8. Question
A Hong Kong-based depositary is in the process of onboarding a new client, a recently established investment fund domiciled in a jurisdiction with less stringent AML regulations. The fund’s structure involves several layers of corporate entities and nominee shareholders. In fulfilling its customer due diligence obligations under the AMLO, what are the depositary’s key responsibilities?
I. The depositary must take reasonable measures to penetrate the corporate structure to identify and verify the identity of the fund’s ultimate beneficial owners.
II. The depositary is required to establish and verify the source of the fund’s initial capital as part of the due diligence process.
III. The depositary can fully delegate its KYC obligations to the fund’s appointed administrator in the foreign jurisdiction, provided the administrator is subject to local regulation.
IV. An initial risk assessment of the fund must be performed, and if it is classified as high-risk, enhanced due diligence measures must be applied.CorrectThis question assesses the application of Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Know Your Customer (KYC) requirements for a depositary service provider. According to the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (Cap. 615) and relevant SFC guidelines, financial institutions have specific obligations.
Statement I is correct. A fundamental principle of customer due diligence (CDD) is to identify the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs) of a client, especially when dealing with complex legal structures like offshore funds with nominee shareholders. The depositary cannot simply accept the corporate structure at face value and must take reasonable measures to look through it.
Statement II is correct. Establishing the source of wealth (SOW) and source of funds (SOF) is a critical component of the risk-based approach to AML. For a new fund, understanding where the initial capital originated is essential to ensure the assets are not proceeds of crime.
Statement III is incorrect. While the AMLO allows for reliance on a third party to carry out some CDD measures, it does not permit the ‘full delegation’ of responsibility. The Hong Kong depositary remains ultimately responsible for ensuring that the CDD requirements are met. It must satisfy itself that the third party is reliable and regulated, and it must obtain all necessary information from the third party to fulfill its own obligations.
Statement IV is correct. The risk-based approach is central to Hong Kong’s AML regime. The depositary must conduct a risk assessment of the new client. If the complex structure, jurisdiction, or other factors lead to a high-risk classification, enhanced due diligence (EDD) measures, such as more intensive verification and more frequent transaction monitoring, are required. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
IncorrectThis question assesses the application of Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Know Your Customer (KYC) requirements for a depositary service provider. According to the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (Cap. 615) and relevant SFC guidelines, financial institutions have specific obligations.
Statement I is correct. A fundamental principle of customer due diligence (CDD) is to identify the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs) of a client, especially when dealing with complex legal structures like offshore funds with nominee shareholders. The depositary cannot simply accept the corporate structure at face value and must take reasonable measures to look through it.
Statement II is correct. Establishing the source of wealth (SOW) and source of funds (SOF) is a critical component of the risk-based approach to AML. For a new fund, understanding where the initial capital originated is essential to ensure the assets are not proceeds of crime.
Statement III is incorrect. While the AMLO allows for reliance on a third party to carry out some CDD measures, it does not permit the ‘full delegation’ of responsibility. The Hong Kong depositary remains ultimately responsible for ensuring that the CDD requirements are met. It must satisfy itself that the third party is reliable and regulated, and it must obtain all necessary information from the third party to fulfill its own obligations.
Statement IV is correct. The risk-based approach is central to Hong Kong’s AML regime. The depositary must conduct a risk assessment of the new client. If the complex structure, jurisdiction, or other factors lead to a high-risk classification, enhanced due diligence (EDD) measures, such as more intensive verification and more frequent transaction monitoring, are required. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
- Question 9 of 30
9. Question
A fund management company licensed in Hong Kong is establishing a new SFC-authorized unit trust. The company’s Responsible Officer is reviewing the service level agreement with the proposed depositary. According to the SFC’s Code on Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds, which of the following statements accurately describe the fundamental duties of the depositary for this scheme?
I. It must take into its custody or under its control all the assets of the scheme and hold them for the unitholders.
II. It is responsible for overseeing the fund manager’s compliance with the investment restrictions stipulated in the scheme’s constitutive documents.
III. It is primarily responsible for formulating the investment strategy and executing trades on behalf of the scheme.
IV. It must monitor the scheme’s cash flows and ensure that all payments made by investors for the subscription of units have been received.CorrectFor a collective investment scheme (CIS) authorized by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) under the Code on Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds (UT Code), the depositary (often a trustee or custodian) has several core regulatory duties. Statement I is correct as the primary function of a depositary is the safekeeping of the scheme’s assets, holding them in custody or under its control for the benefit of the unitholders. Statement II is also correct; the depositary has a critical oversight function to ensure the fund manager adheres to the investment and borrowing restrictions outlined in the scheme’s constitutive documents (e.g., the trust deed). Statement IV accurately describes the depositary’s cash monitoring responsibilities, which involve overseeing all cash flows and verifying that subscription monies from investors are properly received. Statement III is incorrect because the formulation of investment strategy and the execution of trades are the responsibilities of the fund manager, not the depositary. The depositary’s role is to oversee these activities, not to perform them. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
IncorrectFor a collective investment scheme (CIS) authorized by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) under the Code on Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds (UT Code), the depositary (often a trustee or custodian) has several core regulatory duties. Statement I is correct as the primary function of a depositary is the safekeeping of the scheme’s assets, holding them in custody or under its control for the benefit of the unitholders. Statement II is also correct; the depositary has a critical oversight function to ensure the fund manager adheres to the investment and borrowing restrictions outlined in the scheme’s constitutive documents (e.g., the trust deed). Statement IV accurately describes the depositary’s cash monitoring responsibilities, which involve overseeing all cash flows and verifying that subscription monies from investors are properly received. Statement III is incorrect because the formulation of investment strategy and the execution of trades are the responsibilities of the fund manager, not the depositary. The depositary’s role is to oversee these activities, not to perform them. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
- Question 10 of 30
10. Question
A compliance officer at a Hong Kong-based depositary service provider is conducting due diligence on a new corporate client. The review reveals that the ultimate beneficial owner is a senior government official from a jurisdiction with a high perceived risk of corruption, classifying them as a Politically Exposed Person (PEP). The documentation provided to verify the source of wealth is vague. In line with the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO), what is the most critical immediate step the firm must take?
CorrectThe correct answer is that the firm must apply enhanced due diligence measures, which must include obtaining approval from senior management before establishing the business relationship. According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and the SFC’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, when a client or their beneficial owner is identified as a Politically Exposed Person (PEP), licensed corporations are required to implement enhanced due diligence (EDD). A critical and mandatory step in this process is to secure approval from senior management before establishing a business relationship. This ensures that the heightened risks associated with PEPs are acknowledged and accepted at an appropriate level within the firm. Simply proceeding with onboarding while planning for more frequent reviews is insufficient as it bypasses the crucial pre-approval step required by the regulations. Reporting the potential client directly to the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is incorrect; the designated authority for receiving Suspicious Transaction Reports (STRs) in Hong Kong is the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). Rejecting the application and informing the client about their high-risk profile, while a possible outcome, is not the correct immediate procedure and could potentially be construed as ‘tipping off’ if a suspicion is later formed and reported.
IncorrectThe correct answer is that the firm must apply enhanced due diligence measures, which must include obtaining approval from senior management before establishing the business relationship. According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and the SFC’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, when a client or their beneficial owner is identified as a Politically Exposed Person (PEP), licensed corporations are required to implement enhanced due diligence (EDD). A critical and mandatory step in this process is to secure approval from senior management before establishing a business relationship. This ensures that the heightened risks associated with PEPs are acknowledged and accepted at an appropriate level within the firm. Simply proceeding with onboarding while planning for more frequent reviews is insufficient as it bypasses the crucial pre-approval step required by the regulations. Reporting the potential client directly to the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is incorrect; the designated authority for receiving Suspicious Transaction Reports (STRs) in Hong Kong is the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). Rejecting the application and informing the client about their high-risk profile, while a possible outcome, is not the correct immediate procedure and could potentially be construed as ‘tipping off’ if a suspicion is later formed and reported.
- Question 11 of 30
11. Question
A compliance officer at a Hong Kong depositary firm identifies a series of transactions from a new institutional client that are unusually complex and involve fund flows through jurisdictions with weak AML controls. Despite initial due diligence, the ultimate beneficial ownership remains obscure. The officer forms a reasonable suspicion that the funds may be related to illicit activities. According to the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance, what is the firm’s most critical and immediate obligation?
CorrectThe correct answer is that the firm is obligated to file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). Under Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (Cap. 615), when a financial institution knows or suspects that any property represents proceeds of an indictable offence or is connected to terrorist financing, it must, as soon as is reasonably practicable, disclose that knowledge or suspicion to an authorized officer, which is done by filing an STR with the JFIU. This is a primary and mandatory legal obligation. Simply reporting the matter to the firm’s primary regulator, the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC), does not fulfill this specific statutory reporting duty, as the JFIU is the designated body for receiving such reports. While requesting further documentation from the client is part of ongoing due diligence, it should not delay the filing of an STR once suspicion has been formed; the legal threshold is ‘suspicion,’ not certainty. Immediately terminating the client relationship is a commercial and risk management decision, but it is not a substitute for the legal requirement to report the suspicion to the authorities. Furthermore, taking such an action without careful consideration could potentially ‘tip off’ the client, which is a separate offence under the ordinance.
IncorrectThe correct answer is that the firm is obligated to file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). Under Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (Cap. 615), when a financial institution knows or suspects that any property represents proceeds of an indictable offence or is connected to terrorist financing, it must, as soon as is reasonably practicable, disclose that knowledge or suspicion to an authorized officer, which is done by filing an STR with the JFIU. This is a primary and mandatory legal obligation. Simply reporting the matter to the firm’s primary regulator, the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC), does not fulfill this specific statutory reporting duty, as the JFIU is the designated body for receiving such reports. While requesting further documentation from the client is part of ongoing due diligence, it should not delay the filing of an STR once suspicion has been formed; the legal threshold is ‘suspicion,’ not certainty. Immediately terminating the client relationship is a commercial and risk management decision, but it is not a substitute for the legal requirement to report the suspicion to the authorities. Furthermore, taking such an action without careful consideration could potentially ‘tip off’ the client, which is a separate offence under the ordinance.
- Question 12 of 30
12. Question
A Hong Kong-based depositary is onboarding a new corporate client, which is a private investment vehicle established in a jurisdiction identified by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) as having strategic AML/CFT deficiencies. In line with the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, what enhanced due diligence (EDD) measures should the depositary undertake?
I. Obtain senior management approval before establishing the business relationship.
II. Take reasonable measures to establish the source of wealth and source of funds of the beneficial owners.
III. Rely solely on the introductory letter from the client’s overseas bank to satisfy all KYC obligations.
IV. Conduct enhanced and ongoing monitoring of the business relationship, including increased scrutiny of transactions.CorrectThis question assesses the understanding of Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) measures required under Hong Kong’s anti-money laundering framework, specifically the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (For Licensed Corporations). When a client is identified as high-risk, such as being from a jurisdiction with strategic AML/CFT deficiencies noted by the FATF, standard Client Due Diligence (CDD) is insufficient.
Statement I is correct because establishing a business relationship with a high-risk client requires approval from senior management. This ensures appropriate oversight and accountability.
Statement II is correct as a fundamental component of EDD is to take reasonable measures to establish the client’s and beneficial owner’s source of wealth and the source of funds for the specific transactions. This helps to ensure the assets are not derived from illicit activities.
Statement III is incorrect. While information from other financial institutions can be considered, a licensed corporation cannot rely solely on it to fulfill its own KYC obligations, especially for a high-risk client. The depositary must conduct its own independent verification and due diligence.
Statement IV is correct. EDD is not a one-time process at onboarding. It requires enhanced and ongoing monitoring of the relationship, which includes scrutinizing transactions more frequently and deeply to identify any unusual or suspicious patterns. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
IncorrectThis question assesses the understanding of Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) measures required under Hong Kong’s anti-money laundering framework, specifically the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (For Licensed Corporations). When a client is identified as high-risk, such as being from a jurisdiction with strategic AML/CFT deficiencies noted by the FATF, standard Client Due Diligence (CDD) is insufficient.
Statement I is correct because establishing a business relationship with a high-risk client requires approval from senior management. This ensures appropriate oversight and accountability.
Statement II is correct as a fundamental component of EDD is to take reasonable measures to establish the client’s and beneficial owner’s source of wealth and the source of funds for the specific transactions. This helps to ensure the assets are not derived from illicit activities.
Statement III is incorrect. While information from other financial institutions can be considered, a licensed corporation cannot rely solely on it to fulfill its own KYC obligations, especially for a high-risk client. The depositary must conduct its own independent verification and due diligence.
Statement IV is correct. EDD is not a one-time process at onboarding. It requires enhanced and ongoing monitoring of the relationship, which includes scrutinizing transactions more frequently and deeply to identify any unusual or suspicious patterns. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
- Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Global Custody HK Ltd., a licensed depositary, is onboarding a new client, Apex Alpha Fund SPC, a Cayman Islands-domiciled fund with a Singapore-based investment manager. The fund’s initial capital is being transferred through a series of offshore corporate vehicles. In line with the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and relevant SFC guidelines, which of the following actions constitute appropriate enhanced due diligence measures for the depositary to undertake?
I. Identify and verify the identity of the ultimate beneficial owners of the underlying segregated portfolios.
II. Obtain detailed information on the source of wealth and source of funds for the initial capital injection into the fund.
III. Rely exclusively on the due diligence report provided by the Singapore-based investment manager, as they are regulated in a FATF member jurisdiction.
IV. Implement an enhanced ongoing monitoring program for the fund’s transactions, with a lower threshold for flagging suspicious activities.CorrectThis question assesses the application of enhanced due diligence (EDD) measures under Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and related SFC guidelines. Statement I is correct because identifying and verifying the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs) is a fundamental requirement of customer due diligence, especially for complex structures like an SPC. Statement II is correct as establishing the source of wealth (SOW) and source of funds (SOF) is a critical EDD measure when dealing with higher-risk clients, such as those using complex offshore structures. Statement IV is correct because high-risk clients necessitate enhanced ongoing monitoring to detect unusual or suspicious transactions promptly. Statement III is incorrect. While information from a regulated third party can be considered, a licensed corporation in Hong Kong cannot delegate its AML/CFT obligations. It must conduct its own independent risk assessment and due diligence and cannot rely exclusively on the checks performed by another entity, even if that entity is in a FATF member jurisdiction. The ultimate responsibility remains with the Hong Kong licensed corporation. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
IncorrectThis question assesses the application of enhanced due diligence (EDD) measures under Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and related SFC guidelines. Statement I is correct because identifying and verifying the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs) is a fundamental requirement of customer due diligence, especially for complex structures like an SPC. Statement II is correct as establishing the source of wealth (SOW) and source of funds (SOF) is a critical EDD measure when dealing with higher-risk clients, such as those using complex offshore structures. Statement IV is correct because high-risk clients necessitate enhanced ongoing monitoring to detect unusual or suspicious transactions promptly. Statement III is incorrect. While information from a regulated third party can be considered, a licensed corporation in Hong Kong cannot delegate its AML/CFT obligations. It must conduct its own independent risk assessment and due diligence and cannot rely exclusively on the checks performed by another entity, even if that entity is in a FATF member jurisdiction. The ultimate responsibility remains with the Hong Kong licensed corporation. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
- Question 14 of 30
14. Question
A Hong Kong-licensed depositary is onboarding a new institutional client, a segregated portfolio company established in the Cayman Islands. The fund’s investment manager is regulated in Singapore, and its investors are primarily international high-net-worth individuals. When conducting customer due diligence (CDD), which of the following procedures are mandatory for the depositary under the prevailing regulatory framework?
I. Identify and verify the identity of the fund, its directors, and its designated investment manager.
II. Take reasonable measures to identify and verify the identity of the fund’s ultimate beneficial owners.
III. Solely rely on the due diligence checks conducted by the Singapore-based investment manager to fulfill all local CDD obligations.
IV. Automatically apply simplified due diligence (SDD) as the client is classified as an institutional entity.CorrectUnder Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and the SFC’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, a depositary service provider must conduct thorough Customer Due Diligence (CDD). Statement I is correct because identifying and verifying the legal entity (the fund) and its key controllers (directors, investment manager) is a fundamental step. Statement II is also correct as the risk-based approach requires identifying the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs) who ultimately own or control the client, which is crucial for understanding the source of funds and potential risks. Statement III is incorrect because while the AMLO allows for reliance on CDD performed by third parties under specific conditions, the ultimate responsibility for ensuring CDD is properly conducted remains with the financial institution (the depositary). It cannot ‘solely rely’ on the checks without meeting stringent criteria and retaining accountability. Statement IV is incorrect because the application of simplified due diligence (SDD) is not automatic for institutional clients. A risk-based assessment must be performed. In this case, the client’s structure (Cayman SPC), cross-border nature, and investor base could be considered higher-risk factors, potentially requiring enhanced due diligence (EDD) rather than SDD. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.
IncorrectUnder Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and the SFC’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, a depositary service provider must conduct thorough Customer Due Diligence (CDD). Statement I is correct because identifying and verifying the legal entity (the fund) and its key controllers (directors, investment manager) is a fundamental step. Statement II is also correct as the risk-based approach requires identifying the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs) who ultimately own or control the client, which is crucial for understanding the source of funds and potential risks. Statement III is incorrect because while the AMLO allows for reliance on CDD performed by third parties under specific conditions, the ultimate responsibility for ensuring CDD is properly conducted remains with the financial institution (the depositary). It cannot ‘solely rely’ on the checks without meeting stringent criteria and retaining accountability. Statement IV is incorrect because the application of simplified due diligence (SDD) is not automatic for institutional clients. A risk-based assessment must be performed. In this case, the client’s structure (Cayman SPC), cross-border nature, and investor base could be considered higher-risk factors, potentially requiring enhanced due diligence (EDD) rather than SDD. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.
- Question 15 of 30
15. Question
A licensed bank in Hong Kong, which is an authorized institution under the Banking Ordinance, is establishing a new division to act as a depositary for collective investment schemes (CIS) that will be offered to the public and require SFC authorization. The bank’s Responsible Officer is outlining the regulatory landscape. Which statements correctly describe the roles and requirements of the key Hong Kong regulatory bodies in this context?
I. The Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) acts as the primary prudential supervisor for the bank, overseeing its overall capital adequacy, liquidity, and risk management frameworks.
II. The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is responsible for authorizing the CIS and has the authority to set specific eligibility and ongoing conduct requirements for the bank acting as the depositary under its product codes.
III. To perform its depositary role, the bank must apply for and hold a separate Type 1 (Dealing in Securities) license issued by the SFC.
IV. The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) will be the lead regulator for the bank’s depositary services for all publicly offered funds, including non-MPF schemes.CorrectThis question assesses the understanding of the distinct yet overlapping roles of Hong Kong’s key financial regulators concerning depositary services provided by a licensed bank.
Statement I is correct. As an authorized institution under the Banking Ordinance, a licensed bank’s primary prudential supervisor is the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA). The HKMA is responsible for the stability of the banking system and oversees the bank’s overall financial health, including its capital adequacy, liquidity, and internal control systems.
Statement II is also correct. The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) regulates the securities and futures markets. When a bank acts as a depositary (or trustee/custodian) for an SFC-authorized Collective Investment Scheme (CIS), it falls under the SFC’s purview for that specific function. The SFC sets the rules for the authorization of the CIS and the eligibility, duties, and operational conduct of its depositary, as detailed in regulations like the Code on Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds.
Statement III is incorrect. Under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO), licensed banks are considered ‘exempt persons’ for certain regulated activities, including dealing in securities (Type 1) when it is ancillary to their main banking business. Providing custody or depositary services is typically part of this exemption. Therefore, the bank does not need to obtain a separate Type 1 license from the SFC, although it must still comply with the SFC’s applicable codes and conduct requirements.
Statement IV is incorrect. The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) has a specific mandate to regulate MPF schemes and their service providers. Its jurisdiction does not extend to non-MPF retail funds or other types of CIS. The SFC is the lead regulator for publicly offered non-MPF funds. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.
IncorrectThis question assesses the understanding of the distinct yet overlapping roles of Hong Kong’s key financial regulators concerning depositary services provided by a licensed bank.
Statement I is correct. As an authorized institution under the Banking Ordinance, a licensed bank’s primary prudential supervisor is the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA). The HKMA is responsible for the stability of the banking system and oversees the bank’s overall financial health, including its capital adequacy, liquidity, and internal control systems.
Statement II is also correct. The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) regulates the securities and futures markets. When a bank acts as a depositary (or trustee/custodian) for an SFC-authorized Collective Investment Scheme (CIS), it falls under the SFC’s purview for that specific function. The SFC sets the rules for the authorization of the CIS and the eligibility, duties, and operational conduct of its depositary, as detailed in regulations like the Code on Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds.
Statement III is incorrect. Under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO), licensed banks are considered ‘exempt persons’ for certain regulated activities, including dealing in securities (Type 1) when it is ancillary to their main banking business. Providing custody or depositary services is typically part of this exemption. Therefore, the bank does not need to obtain a separate Type 1 license from the SFC, although it must still comply with the SFC’s applicable codes and conduct requirements.
Statement IV is incorrect. The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) has a specific mandate to regulate MPF schemes and their service providers. Its jurisdiction does not extend to non-MPF retail funds or other types of CIS. The SFC is the lead regulator for publicly offered non-MPF funds. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.
- Question 16 of 30
16. Question
A Hong Kong-based depositary service provider is onboarding a new client, a private investment fund incorporated in a jurisdiction identified by international bodies as having strategic deficiencies in its AML/CFT regime. The fund’s structure involves several layers of shell companies. In accordance with the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and relevant SFC guidelines, what are the appropriate steps the provider must take?
I. Implement enhanced due diligence measures, including obtaining additional information on the source of funds and wealth.
II. Take reasonable measures to identify and verify the identity of the ultimate beneficial owners of the fund.
III. Rely on the AML/CFT regulations of the fund’s home jurisdiction as long as a basic KYC check has been performed by the fund manager.
IV. Conduct a comprehensive risk assessment at onboarding, which will remain valid for the entire duration of the client relationship without further review.CorrectThis question assesses the application of Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Know Your Customer (KYC) requirements for a depositary service provider dealing with a high-risk client. Statement I is correct because a client from a jurisdiction with known AML/CFT deficiencies, combined with a complex ownership structure, automatically triggers the need for Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) under the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO). EDD involves gathering more detailed information, such as the specific source of funds and wealth. Statement II is correct as identifying and verifying the Ultimate Beneficial Owners (UBOs) is a fundamental requirement of customer due diligence, especially when dealing with opaque corporate structures like layered shell companies. Statement III is incorrect because a Hong Kong licensed corporation must adhere to Hong Kong’s AML/CFT standards. While reliance on third-party CDD is permitted under specific circumstances, it is generally not appropriate for high-risk clients, and certainly not when the third party is in a jurisdiction with weaker standards. Statement IV is incorrect because the AMLO mandates ongoing monitoring of business relationships. For high-risk clients, this monitoring must be more frequent and intensive; a one-time assessment at onboarding is insufficient. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.
IncorrectThis question assesses the application of Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Know Your Customer (KYC) requirements for a depositary service provider dealing with a high-risk client. Statement I is correct because a client from a jurisdiction with known AML/CFT deficiencies, combined with a complex ownership structure, automatically triggers the need for Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) under the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO). EDD involves gathering more detailed information, such as the specific source of funds and wealth. Statement II is correct as identifying and verifying the Ultimate Beneficial Owners (UBOs) is a fundamental requirement of customer due diligence, especially when dealing with opaque corporate structures like layered shell companies. Statement III is incorrect because a Hong Kong licensed corporation must adhere to Hong Kong’s AML/CFT standards. While reliance on third-party CDD is permitted under specific circumstances, it is generally not appropriate for high-risk clients, and certainly not when the third party is in a jurisdiction with weaker standards. Statement IV is incorrect because the AMLO mandates ongoing monitoring of business relationships. For high-risk clients, this monitoring must be more frequent and intensive; a one-time assessment at onboarding is insufficient. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.
- Question 17 of 30
17. Question
A Hong Kong-based depositary services firm is onboarding a new corporate client registered in a jurisdiction known for its stringent corporate secrecy laws. The due diligence process reveals a multi-layered ownership structure involving several nominee shareholders, making the ultimate beneficial owner (UBO) difficult to ascertain. In accordance with the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (For Licensed Corporations), what is the most critical immediate action for the firm’s compliance department?
CorrectThe correct answer is that the firm must insist on obtaining satisfactory evidence to identify and verify the ultimate beneficial owners and understand the complete ownership structure before proceeding. According to Hong Kong’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (For Licensed Corporations), a fundamental Know Your Customer (KYC) obligation is to identify and take reasonable measures to verify the identity of the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs). For a client with a complex ownership structure from a jurisdiction with low transparency, enhanced due diligence (EDD) is required. This involves taking more stringent measures to understand the ownership and control structure. If the firm cannot satisfactorily identify the UBOs, it must not establish a business relationship. Proceeding to open the account while planning for enhanced monitoring is incorrect because the initial due diligence requirements have not been met; monitoring is a subsequent step for managing an established relationship, not a substitute for proper onboarding. Accepting a signed declaration from a director is insufficient as it is not an independent verification of the UBO’s identity and does not fulfill the ‘reasonable measures’ requirement. While reliance on an introducer’s due diligence is permitted under specific circumstances, the ultimate responsibility for compliance remains with the depositary firm, and in a high-risk scenario like this, direct verification is expected.
IncorrectThe correct answer is that the firm must insist on obtaining satisfactory evidence to identify and verify the ultimate beneficial owners and understand the complete ownership structure before proceeding. According to Hong Kong’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (For Licensed Corporations), a fundamental Know Your Customer (KYC) obligation is to identify and take reasonable measures to verify the identity of the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs). For a client with a complex ownership structure from a jurisdiction with low transparency, enhanced due diligence (EDD) is required. This involves taking more stringent measures to understand the ownership and control structure. If the firm cannot satisfactorily identify the UBOs, it must not establish a business relationship. Proceeding to open the account while planning for enhanced monitoring is incorrect because the initial due diligence requirements have not been met; monitoring is a subsequent step for managing an established relationship, not a substitute for proper onboarding. Accepting a signed declaration from a director is insufficient as it is not an independent verification of the UBO’s identity and does not fulfill the ‘reasonable measures’ requirement. While reliance on an introducer’s due diligence is permitted under specific circumstances, the ultimate responsibility for compliance remains with the depositary firm, and in a high-risk scenario like this, direct verification is expected.
- Question 18 of 30
18. Question
A depositary service provider in Hong Kong is conducting due diligence on a prospective corporate client. The client’s legal structure involves multiple layers of holding companies registered in jurisdictions with limited transparency. When asked to provide documentation to identify the ultimate beneficial owners, the client’s representatives are evasive and provide incomplete information. Under the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO), what is the depositary’s required course of action?
CorrectThe correct answer is that the depositary must not establish a business relationship until customer due diligence measures, including the identification and verification of the ultimate beneficial owners, are satisfactorily completed. According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO), financial institutions are obligated to conduct thorough Customer Due Diligence (CDD) before entering into a business relationship. This is a foundational requirement. In situations presenting higher risk, such as complex ownership structures involving offshore entities and a client’s unwillingness to provide transparency, enhanced due diligence is required. Proceeding without identifying the ultimate beneficial owners would be a serious regulatory breach. Filing a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is an obligation when there is knowledge or suspicion of money laundering, but it does not replace the primary duty to complete CDD before onboarding. Establishing the relationship on a provisional basis is generally not permitted when fundamental CDD information is missing, as it exposes the institution to unacceptable risks. Relying on a client’s declaration or promise to provide information later is insufficient and does not fulfill the institution’s legal responsibility to independently verify the client’s identity and ownership structure.
IncorrectThe correct answer is that the depositary must not establish a business relationship until customer due diligence measures, including the identification and verification of the ultimate beneficial owners, are satisfactorily completed. According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO), financial institutions are obligated to conduct thorough Customer Due Diligence (CDD) before entering into a business relationship. This is a foundational requirement. In situations presenting higher risk, such as complex ownership structures involving offshore entities and a client’s unwillingness to provide transparency, enhanced due diligence is required. Proceeding without identifying the ultimate beneficial owners would be a serious regulatory breach. Filing a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is an obligation when there is knowledge or suspicion of money laundering, but it does not replace the primary duty to complete CDD before onboarding. Establishing the relationship on a provisional basis is generally not permitted when fundamental CDD information is missing, as it exposes the institution to unacceptable risks. Relying on a client’s declaration or promise to provide information later is insufficient and does not fulfill the institution’s legal responsibility to independently verify the client’s identity and ownership structure.
- Question 19 of 30
19. Question
A depositary service provider licensed by the SFC is onboarding a new institutional client, a fund domiciled in a jurisdiction known for having strategic deficiencies in its anti-money laundering (AML) regime. In line with the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, which of the following actions are required as part of the enhanced due diligence (EDD) process for this high-risk client?
I. Obtaining approval from the depositary’s senior management to establish the business relationship.
II. Establishing the source of wealth and source of funds of the fund’s ultimate beneficial owners.
III. Filing a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) prior to account opening.
IV. Implementing enhanced ongoing monitoring of the account, including more frequent and intensive scrutiny of transactions.CorrectThis question assesses the understanding of Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) measures required for high-risk clients under Hong Kong’s anti-money laundering (AML) framework, specifically the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (For Licensed Corporations). When dealing with a client from a jurisdiction with strategic AML deficiencies, a licensed corporation like a depositary must apply EDD.
Statement I is correct. For any high-risk business relationship, obtaining approval from senior management is a mandatory EDD measure. This ensures appropriate oversight and accountability for taking on higher-risk clients.
Statement II is correct. A fundamental component of EDD is to take reasonable and adequate measures to establish the client’s (and their beneficial owners’) source of wealth and source of funds. This helps the firm understand the legitimacy of the assets being managed.
Statement III is incorrect. A Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) should only be filed when there is knowledge or suspicion that property represents proceeds of crime or is connected to terrorist financing. The client’s high-risk jurisdiction is a trigger for EDD, not an automatic basis for suspicion. Filing an STR without genuine suspicion is inappropriate; the EDD process itself is designed to assess and manage the risk.
Statement IV is correct. High-risk relationships must be subject to enhanced ongoing monitoring. This involves more frequent reviews of the relationship and greater scrutiny of transactions to identify any unusual or suspicious activity promptly. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
IncorrectThis question assesses the understanding of Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) measures required for high-risk clients under Hong Kong’s anti-money laundering (AML) framework, specifically the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (For Licensed Corporations). When dealing with a client from a jurisdiction with strategic AML deficiencies, a licensed corporation like a depositary must apply EDD.
Statement I is correct. For any high-risk business relationship, obtaining approval from senior management is a mandatory EDD measure. This ensures appropriate oversight and accountability for taking on higher-risk clients.
Statement II is correct. A fundamental component of EDD is to take reasonable and adequate measures to establish the client’s (and their beneficial owners’) source of wealth and source of funds. This helps the firm understand the legitimacy of the assets being managed.
Statement III is incorrect. A Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) should only be filed when there is knowledge or suspicion that property represents proceeds of crime or is connected to terrorist financing. The client’s high-risk jurisdiction is a trigger for EDD, not an automatic basis for suspicion. Filing an STR without genuine suspicion is inappropriate; the EDD process itself is designed to assess and manage the risk.
Statement IV is correct. High-risk relationships must be subject to enhanced ongoing monitoring. This involves more frequent reviews of the relationship and greater scrutiny of transactions to identify any unusual or suspicious activity promptly. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
- Question 20 of 30
20. Question
A compliance officer at a depositary service provider in Hong Kong is conducting due diligence on a new corporate client. The review reveals that the ultimate beneficial owner is a Politically Exposed Person (PEP) from a jurisdiction known for high corruption risk. The client’s source of wealth declaration is ambiguous, and they are pressuring the firm to expedite the account opening to receive a large, imminent wire transfer from an unrelated entity. What is the most appropriate immediate action for the compliance officer to take in accordance with the AMLO framework?
CorrectThe correct course of action is to escalate the matter internally to senior management and consider filing a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and related SFC guidelines, when a licensed corporation identifies a transaction or client activity it suspects is related to money laundering or terrorist financing, it has a legal obligation to report it. The combination of red flags—a Politically Exposed Person (PEP) from a high-risk jurisdiction, vague source of wealth documentation, and pressure for an urgent, unusual third-party transaction—is sufficient to form such a suspicion. Escalation ensures the firm’s senior management is aware and can direct the STR filing process. Proceeding with the account opening, even with enhanced monitoring, would be a serious compliance breach given the high-risk indicators. The firm should not simply request more documents as the primary next step when a strong suspicion has already been formed; the obligation to report takes precedence. Finally, immediately rejecting the client and informing them of a report to the authorities constitutes ‘tipping off’, which is a criminal offence under the AMLO as it could prejudice an investigation.
IncorrectThe correct course of action is to escalate the matter internally to senior management and consider filing a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and related SFC guidelines, when a licensed corporation identifies a transaction or client activity it suspects is related to money laundering or terrorist financing, it has a legal obligation to report it. The combination of red flags—a Politically Exposed Person (PEP) from a high-risk jurisdiction, vague source of wealth documentation, and pressure for an urgent, unusual third-party transaction—is sufficient to form such a suspicion. Escalation ensures the firm’s senior management is aware and can direct the STR filing process. Proceeding with the account opening, even with enhanced monitoring, would be a serious compliance breach given the high-risk indicators. The firm should not simply request more documents as the primary next step when a strong suspicion has already been formed; the obligation to report takes precedence. Finally, immediately rejecting the client and informing them of a report to the authorities constitutes ‘tipping off’, which is a criminal offence under the AMLO as it could prejudice an investigation.
- Question 21 of 30
21. Question
A Hong Kong-based depositary service provider, licensed by the SFC, is onboarding a new institutional client—a fund domiciled in a jurisdiction known for weaker AML/CFT controls. The fund intends to deposit a substantial portfolio of securities. The Responsible Officer is reviewing the legal and compliance requirements for this transaction. Which of the following obligations must the depositary service provider fulfill?
I. Conduct Enhanced Due Diligence on the fund, its beneficial owners, and the source of the securities.
II. Consider filing a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) if any aspect of the transaction raises suspicion.
III. Rely entirely on the Know-Your-Customer (KYC) checks already performed by the fund’s administrator to fulfill its own AML obligations.
IV. Refrain from collecting detailed information on the fund’s ultimate beneficial owners to avoid breaching the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance.CorrectA detailed breakdown of the statements reveals the correct compliance obligations. Statement I is correct because dealing with a client whose assets originate from a jurisdiction identified as having higher money laundering risks necessitates Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) as stipulated by the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (for Licensed Corporations). A standard KYC process would be insufficient. Statement II is correct because the combination of a new client, a large transaction, and a high-risk jurisdiction constitutes potential red flags. The Responsible Officer has a statutory obligation under the Organized and Serious Crimes Ordinance (OSCO) to report any transaction they suspect is related to the proceeds of an indictable offence to the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). Statement III is incorrect; a licensed corporation cannot simply delegate its AML/CFT responsibilities. While it may place some reliance on due diligence performed by other regulated institutions, it must satisfy itself of the adequacy of those procedures and ultimately retains full responsibility for its own compliance. Statement IV is incorrect because the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) contains provisions that permit the collection and use of personal data for purposes required by law, which includes fulfilling AML/CFT obligations. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.
IncorrectA detailed breakdown of the statements reveals the correct compliance obligations. Statement I is correct because dealing with a client whose assets originate from a jurisdiction identified as having higher money laundering risks necessitates Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) as stipulated by the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (for Licensed Corporations). A standard KYC process would be insufficient. Statement II is correct because the combination of a new client, a large transaction, and a high-risk jurisdiction constitutes potential red flags. The Responsible Officer has a statutory obligation under the Organized and Serious Crimes Ordinance (OSCO) to report any transaction they suspect is related to the proceeds of an indictable offence to the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). Statement III is incorrect; a licensed corporation cannot simply delegate its AML/CFT responsibilities. While it may place some reliance on due diligence performed by other regulated institutions, it must satisfy itself of the adequacy of those procedures and ultimately retains full responsibility for its own compliance. Statement IV is incorrect because the Personal Data (Privacy) Ordinance (PDPO) contains provisions that permit the collection and use of personal data for purposes required by law, which includes fulfilling AML/CFT obligations. Therefore, statements I and II are correct.
- Question 22 of 30
22. Question
A Hong Kong-based depositary is conducting due diligence on a prospective institutional client, a fund domiciled in a jurisdiction with known deficiencies in its AML/CFT regime. The fund’s representatives provide a complex corporate structure chart but are evasive about disclosing the ultimate beneficial owners. In accordance with the SFC’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, what is the most appropriate action for the depositary’s compliance officer to take?
CorrectUnder the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (AML/CFT) applicable to licensed corporations in Hong Kong, a firm must not establish a business relationship if it is unable to complete the required customer due diligence (CDD) measures. A critical component of CDD is the identification and verification of the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs) of a client. When a potential client, particularly one from a high-risk jurisdiction, is unable or unwilling to provide satisfactory information to identify its UBOs, this constitutes a failure of the CDD process. The correct course of action is to decline to establish the business relationship. Furthermore, the circumstances surrounding the refusal to provide information and the complex structure may give rise to a suspicion of money laundering or terrorist financing, which would obligate the firm to consider filing a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). Proceeding with the relationship, even with a high-risk rating and enhanced monitoring, is a violation because the initial CDD was incomplete. Enhanced monitoring is applied to clients for whom CDD has been successfully completed but who are assessed as high-risk; it is not a remedy for failed CDD. Establishing a provisional relationship while awaiting information is also not compliant, as the regulations require CDD to be completed before the relationship commences. Seeking a waiver from the SFC for such a fundamental requirement is not a standard or acceptable procedure, as the onus of performing adequate CDD rests squarely on the licensed corporation.
IncorrectUnder the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (AML/CFT) applicable to licensed corporations in Hong Kong, a firm must not establish a business relationship if it is unable to complete the required customer due diligence (CDD) measures. A critical component of CDD is the identification and verification of the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs) of a client. When a potential client, particularly one from a high-risk jurisdiction, is unable or unwilling to provide satisfactory information to identify its UBOs, this constitutes a failure of the CDD process. The correct course of action is to decline to establish the business relationship. Furthermore, the circumstances surrounding the refusal to provide information and the complex structure may give rise to a suspicion of money laundering or terrorist financing, which would obligate the firm to consider filing a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU). Proceeding with the relationship, even with a high-risk rating and enhanced monitoring, is a violation because the initial CDD was incomplete. Enhanced monitoring is applied to clients for whom CDD has been successfully completed but who are assessed as high-risk; it is not a remedy for failed CDD. Establishing a provisional relationship while awaiting information is also not compliant, as the regulations require CDD to be completed before the relationship commences. Seeking a waiver from the SFC for such a fundamental requirement is not a standard or acceptable procedure, as the onus of performing adequate CDD rests squarely on the licensed corporation.
- Question 23 of 30
23. Question
A newly established firm, ‘Apex Custody Solutions Ltd.’, intends to offer custody services for securities to professional investors in Hong Kong. The firm’s proposed operating model involves holding client assets in segregated accounts, some of which will be structured under trust arrangements. Which of the following statements accurately describe the regulatory framework applicable to Apex Custody Solutions Ltd.?
I. If the custody service is provided as an integral part of a securities dealing business, the firm must be licensed by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) for Type 1 regulated activity.
II. Should the firm offer ‘pure’ custody services without engaging in any other activity regulated under the SFO, it would still be subject to common law duties and potentially the Trustee Ordinance if assets are held on trust.
III. The Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) is the primary body responsible for licensing and supervising any entity that provides standalone custody services, regardless of whether it is a bank.
IV. If the firm’s service includes establishing or acting as a trustee for client asset-holding trusts, it must obtain a Trust or Company Service Provider (TCSP) licence from the Registrar of Companies.CorrectA detailed breakdown of the regulatory requirements for a firm providing custody services in Hong Kong is as follows:
Statement I is correct. Providing custody for securities is often intrinsically linked to other regulated activities. If a firm holds client assets as part of its business of dealing in securities, it must be licensed by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) for Type 1 (Dealing in Securities) regulated activity. The SFC’s Code of Conduct and the Securities and Futures (Client Money) Rules and (Client Securities) Rules would apply.
Statement II is correct. The Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) does not define ‘pure’ or ‘standalone’ custody as a distinct type of regulated activity. Therefore, a firm offering only custody without conducting any other regulated activity (like dealing or asset management) might not need an SFC license. However, if the assets are held under a trust arrangement, the firm would have duties as a trustee under the Trustee Ordinance (Cap. 29).
Statement III is incorrect. The Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) is the primary regulator for Authorized Institutions (i.e., licensed banks, restricted licence banks, and deposit-taking companies). It does not license standalone custody providers that are not Authorized Institutions. Such firms would fall under the SFC’s purview if their activities constitute a regulated activity, or other regimes like the TCSP.
Statement IV is correct. The Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) (Cap. 615) requires any person who provides trust or company services as a business in Hong Kong to obtain a Trust or Company Service Provider (TCSP) licence from the Registrar of Companies. If the custody arrangement involves the creation and administration of trusts for holding client assets, the provider would need a TCSP licence. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
IncorrectA detailed breakdown of the regulatory requirements for a firm providing custody services in Hong Kong is as follows:
Statement I is correct. Providing custody for securities is often intrinsically linked to other regulated activities. If a firm holds client assets as part of its business of dealing in securities, it must be licensed by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) for Type 1 (Dealing in Securities) regulated activity. The SFC’s Code of Conduct and the Securities and Futures (Client Money) Rules and (Client Securities) Rules would apply.
Statement II is correct. The Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) does not define ‘pure’ or ‘standalone’ custody as a distinct type of regulated activity. Therefore, a firm offering only custody without conducting any other regulated activity (like dealing or asset management) might not need an SFC license. However, if the assets are held under a trust arrangement, the firm would have duties as a trustee under the Trustee Ordinance (Cap. 29).
Statement III is incorrect. The Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) is the primary regulator for Authorized Institutions (i.e., licensed banks, restricted licence banks, and deposit-taking companies). It does not license standalone custody providers that are not Authorized Institutions. Such firms would fall under the SFC’s purview if their activities constitute a regulated activity, or other regimes like the TCSP.
Statement IV is correct. The Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) (Cap. 615) requires any person who provides trust or company services as a business in Hong Kong to obtain a Trust or Company Service Provider (TCSP) licence from the Registrar of Companies. If the custody arrangement involves the creation and administration of trusts for holding client assets, the provider would need a TCSP licence. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
- Question 24 of 30
24. Question
A compliance officer at a depositary service provider in Hong Kong is reviewing a new corporate client application. The client’s structure involves several layers of shell companies registered in jurisdictions with high secrecy laws, and the source of funds is vaguely described as ‘international business profits’ with minimal supporting evidence. Based on the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO), what is the most appropriate immediate action for the officer to take?
CorrectAccording to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and related guidelines from the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC), when a licensed corporation forms a suspicion that a client’s funds or assets may be related to the proceeds of an indictable offence, it has a statutory obligation to report this. The correct course of action is to escalate the matter internally and file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) as soon as it is reasonably practicable. The presence of multiple red flags, such as an overly complex ownership structure, the use of shell companies in high-risk jurisdictions, and a vaguely defined source of wealth, constitutes reasonable grounds for suspicion. The institution should also consider delaying the onboarding process or refusing the business relationship until these significant concerns are resolved. Simply proceeding with onboarding under enhanced monitoring is insufficient as it fails to address the immediate legal requirement to report the suspicion. Informing the client directly about the suspicion of money laundering constitutes ‘tipping off’, which is a serious criminal offence under the AMLO. While requesting further documentation is a standard part of due diligence, it does not suspend the obligation to file an STR once a suspicion has already been formed; delaying the report pending a client’s response could breach regulatory requirements.
IncorrectAccording to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and related guidelines from the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC), when a licensed corporation forms a suspicion that a client’s funds or assets may be related to the proceeds of an indictable offence, it has a statutory obligation to report this. The correct course of action is to escalate the matter internally and file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) as soon as it is reasonably practicable. The presence of multiple red flags, such as an overly complex ownership structure, the use of shell companies in high-risk jurisdictions, and a vaguely defined source of wealth, constitutes reasonable grounds for suspicion. The institution should also consider delaying the onboarding process or refusing the business relationship until these significant concerns are resolved. Simply proceeding with onboarding under enhanced monitoring is insufficient as it fails to address the immediate legal requirement to report the suspicion. Informing the client directly about the suspicion of money laundering constitutes ‘tipping off’, which is a serious criminal offence under the AMLO. While requesting further documentation is a standard part of due diligence, it does not suspend the obligation to file an STR once a suspicion has already been formed; delaying the report pending a client’s response could breach regulatory requirements.
- Question 25 of 30
25. Question
A Hong Kong-based financial institution, which is already a registered trust company, intends to expand its services to act as the top-level depositary for collective investment schemes that are authorized by the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC). To legally perform this function, which specific licence must the institution secure from the SFC?
CorrectThe correct answer is that the firm must obtain a Type 13 licence for providing depositary services for SFC-authorized collective investment schemes. This specific regulated activity was introduced under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) to strengthen the regulatory oversight of entities acting as top-level depositaries for public funds in Hong Kong, ensuring they meet specific competence and financial soundness requirements. The role of a depositary for an SFC-authorized fund involves not just safekeeping assets but also oversight duties, which is distinct from other regulated activities. A Type 1 licence for dealing in securities pertains to executing trades or acting as a broker, which is a different function from asset custody and oversight. A Type 9 licence for asset management is required for entities that make investment decisions and manage portfolios, which is the role of the fund manager, not the depositary. While the entity may need to be registered as a Trust or Company Service Provider (TCSP) with the Companies Registry for AML/CTF purposes related to its trust services, this is separate from and does not satisfy the SFC’s specific licensing requirement for providing depositary services to regulated funds.
IncorrectThe correct answer is that the firm must obtain a Type 13 licence for providing depositary services for SFC-authorized collective investment schemes. This specific regulated activity was introduced under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO) to strengthen the regulatory oversight of entities acting as top-level depositaries for public funds in Hong Kong, ensuring they meet specific competence and financial soundness requirements. The role of a depositary for an SFC-authorized fund involves not just safekeeping assets but also oversight duties, which is distinct from other regulated activities. A Type 1 licence for dealing in securities pertains to executing trades or acting as a broker, which is a different function from asset custody and oversight. A Type 9 licence for asset management is required for entities that make investment decisions and manage portfolios, which is the role of the fund manager, not the depositary. While the entity may need to be registered as a Trust or Company Service Provider (TCSP) with the Companies Registry for AML/CTF purposes related to its trust services, this is separate from and does not satisfy the SFC’s specific licensing requirement for providing depositary services to regulated funds.
- Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A compliance officer at a Hong Kong-based depositary services provider is conducting a periodic review of an existing institutional client. The review uncovers that the client’s ultimate beneficial owner has recently been added to an international sanctions list, a fact the client failed to disclose. In accordance with the Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, what is the most critical and immediate action the provider must take?
CorrectThe correct answer is that the firm must, without delay, file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) and consider freezing the assets. According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and the SFC’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, when a licensed corporation knows or suspects that property is related to an indictable offence or terrorist activity, it has a statutory obligation to report it. The discovery of a sanctioned UBO is a major red flag that triggers this reporting duty. The action must be taken promptly and without alerting the client, as ‘tipping off’ is a serious offence. Simply terminating the relationship and returning the assets is incorrect because this could facilitate the movement of illicit funds, defeating the purpose of the AML regime. Requesting an explanation from the client before reporting is also incorrect as it could constitute tipping off and would cause an unnecessary delay in reporting the suspicion. While enhancing the client’s risk rating is a valid risk management step, it is an insufficient response to a direct sanctions match and does not fulfill the immediate legal obligation to file an STR.
IncorrectThe correct answer is that the firm must, without delay, file a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) with the Joint Financial Intelligence Unit (JFIU) and consider freezing the assets. According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and the SFC’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, when a licensed corporation knows or suspects that property is related to an indictable offence or terrorist activity, it has a statutory obligation to report it. The discovery of a sanctioned UBO is a major red flag that triggers this reporting duty. The action must be taken promptly and without alerting the client, as ‘tipping off’ is a serious offence. Simply terminating the relationship and returning the assets is incorrect because this could facilitate the movement of illicit funds, defeating the purpose of the AML regime. Requesting an explanation from the client before reporting is also incorrect as it could constitute tipping off and would cause an unnecessary delay in reporting the suspicion. While enhancing the client’s risk rating is a valid risk management step, it is an insufficient response to a direct sanctions match and does not fulfill the immediate legal obligation to file an STR.
- Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A licensed corporation, which is also an authorized institution under the Banking Ordinance, has been appointed to act as the trustee and custodian for a newly established SFC-authorized retail fund. A compliance officer is reviewing the firm’s obligations. Which of the following statements accurately describe the roles of the key regulatory bodies in this context?
I. The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is the primary regulator for the fund itself, including its authorization for public offering and the conduct of the fund manager.
II. The Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) is the primary prudential supervisor for the entity’s banking and trust business activities, including its capital adequacy and internal controls.
III. The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) must approve the appointment of the custodian since the fund may eventually be offered as an investment option for MPF schemes.
IV. The SFC’s Code on Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds sets out the specific eligibility requirements and ongoing duties for the entity acting as the trustee/custodian.CorrectThis question assesses the understanding of the overlapping and distinct roles of Hong Kong’s key financial regulators concerning depositary services for a public fund. Statement I is correct because the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is the primary regulator for collective investment schemes (funds) offered to the public in Hong Kong. It authorizes these funds and regulates the conduct of the fund managers under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO). Statement II is correct because the entity is also an authorized institution (a bank), making the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) its primary prudential supervisor. The HKMA oversees the bank’s safety and soundness, including its capital adequacy, risk management, and trust business operations. Statement IV is correct as the SFC’s Code on Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds specifically outlines the stringent eligibility criteria, responsibilities, and operational duties for trustees and custodians of SFC-authorized funds to protect investors. Statement III is incorrect. The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) regulates MPF schemes and their approved trustees. While this retail fund might later be included as an underlying investment in an MPF scheme, the MPFA is not involved in the initial appointment of the custodian for a standard SFC-authorized retail fund. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
IncorrectThis question assesses the understanding of the overlapping and distinct roles of Hong Kong’s key financial regulators concerning depositary services for a public fund. Statement I is correct because the Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is the primary regulator for collective investment schemes (funds) offered to the public in Hong Kong. It authorizes these funds and regulates the conduct of the fund managers under the Securities and Futures Ordinance (SFO). Statement II is correct because the entity is also an authorized institution (a bank), making the Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) its primary prudential supervisor. The HKMA oversees the bank’s safety and soundness, including its capital adequacy, risk management, and trust business operations. Statement IV is correct as the SFC’s Code on Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds specifically outlines the stringent eligibility criteria, responsibilities, and operational duties for trustees and custodians of SFC-authorized funds to protect investors. Statement III is incorrect. The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) regulates MPF schemes and their approved trustees. While this retail fund might later be included as an underlying investment in an MPF scheme, the MPFA is not involved in the initial appointment of the custodian for a standard SFC-authorized retail fund. Therefore, statements I, II and IV are correct.
- Question 28 of 30
28. Question
A depositary service provider in Hong Kong is approached by a prospective client, which is a complex discretionary trust established in a jurisdiction known for its opaque corporate laws. The trust’s structure involves multiple layers of corporate entities. In accordance with the AMLO and relevant SFC guidelines, what is the depositary provider’s primary obligation during the client onboarding process?
CorrectThe correct answer is that the provider must conduct enhanced due diligence to fully understand the trust’s ownership structure and verify the source of wealth of the settlors and ultimate beneficial owners. According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and the SFC’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, a risk-based approach is mandatory. A complex trust structure established in a jurisdiction with less stringent transparency standards presents a higher risk of money laundering or terrorist financing. This triggers the need for enhanced due diligence (EDD), which goes beyond standard customer due diligence (CDD). EDD requires obtaining additional information on the client, understanding the purpose of the trust, identifying all relevant parties (settlor, trustee, protector, beneficiaries, ultimate beneficial owners), and taking reasonable measures to verify their source of wealth and funds. Proceeding with standard due diligence would be inadequate given the heightened risk factors. Relying solely on the certification from the client’s legal counsel without independent verification fails to meet the licensed corporation’s direct obligation to conduct its own due diligence. Deferring the identification of beneficial owners until after the initial asset transfer is a direct violation of the principle that due diligence must be completed before establishing a business relationship, especially for high-risk clients.
IncorrectThe correct answer is that the provider must conduct enhanced due diligence to fully understand the trust’s ownership structure and verify the source of wealth of the settlors and ultimate beneficial owners. According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance (AMLO) and the SFC’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, a risk-based approach is mandatory. A complex trust structure established in a jurisdiction with less stringent transparency standards presents a higher risk of money laundering or terrorist financing. This triggers the need for enhanced due diligence (EDD), which goes beyond standard customer due diligence (CDD). EDD requires obtaining additional information on the client, understanding the purpose of the trust, identifying all relevant parties (settlor, trustee, protector, beneficiaries, ultimate beneficial owners), and taking reasonable measures to verify their source of wealth and funds. Proceeding with standard due diligence would be inadequate given the heightened risk factors. Relying solely on the certification from the client’s legal counsel without independent verification fails to meet the licensed corporation’s direct obligation to conduct its own due diligence. Deferring the identification of beneficial owners until after the initial asset transfer is a direct violation of the principle that due diligence must be completed before establishing a business relationship, especially for high-risk clients.
- Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A compliance officer at a Hong Kong-based depositary service provider is onboarding a new institutional client, a fund domiciled in a jurisdiction identified by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) as having strategic AML/CFT deficiencies. The fund’s ownership structure is deliberately complex, involving multiple layers of corporate vehicles. The client is pressuring the officer for immediate account activation to execute a time-sensitive transaction. Under the SFC’s Guideline on Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism, what is the officer’s most critical and immediate obligation?
CorrectThe correct course of action is to insist on completing enhanced due diligence to identify and verify the ultimate beneficial owners of the fund before establishing the business relationship, irrespective of the client’s trading deadline. According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (AML/CFT) Guideline, financial institutions must complete customer due diligence (CDD) measures before establishing a business relationship. In this scenario, several high-risk factors are present: the client is from a jurisdiction with known AML/CFT deficiencies and has a complex, opaque ownership structure. These factors mandate the application of Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD). The core of EDD is to take additional measures to understand the client’s ownership and control structure and to identify and verify the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs). Commercial pressure from the client cannot be used as a justification to circumvent these critical regulatory requirements. Opening a temporary or restricted account before completing due diligence is a direct violation of the principle of conducting CDD prior to establishing a relationship, as it exposes the firm to significant money laundering risks. Relying solely on a signed declaration from a director is insufficient, as the guideline requires the institution to take reasonable and independent measures to verify the information provided, especially in a high-risk context. Filing a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) at this stage is premature; the obligation is to first conduct the necessary due diligence. An STR should be filed if, during or after the EDD process, a suspicion of money laundering or terrorist financing is formed, for instance, if the client is unwilling or unable to provide the required information.
IncorrectThe correct course of action is to insist on completing enhanced due diligence to identify and verify the ultimate beneficial owners of the fund before establishing the business relationship, irrespective of the client’s trading deadline. According to Hong Kong’s Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Financing of Terrorism (AML/CFT) Guideline, financial institutions must complete customer due diligence (CDD) measures before establishing a business relationship. In this scenario, several high-risk factors are present: the client is from a jurisdiction with known AML/CFT deficiencies and has a complex, opaque ownership structure. These factors mandate the application of Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD). The core of EDD is to take additional measures to understand the client’s ownership and control structure and to identify and verify the ultimate beneficial owners (UBOs). Commercial pressure from the client cannot be used as a justification to circumvent these critical regulatory requirements. Opening a temporary or restricted account before completing due diligence is a direct violation of the principle of conducting CDD prior to establishing a relationship, as it exposes the firm to significant money laundering risks. Relying solely on a signed declaration from a director is insufficient, as the guideline requires the institution to take reasonable and independent measures to verify the information provided, especially in a high-risk context. Filing a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) at this stage is premature; the obligation is to first conduct the necessary due diligence. An STR should be filed if, during or after the EDD process, a suspicion of money laundering or terrorist financing is formed, for instance, if the client is unwilling or unable to provide the required information.
- Question 30 of 30
30. Question
A licensed corporation in Hong Kong, ‘Apex Custody Services Ltd.’, acts as a depositary for both SFC-authorized retail funds and several Mandatory Provident Fund (MPF) schemes. The Responsible Officer is reviewing the firm’s relationship with its various regulators. Which of the following statements accurately describe the roles of the key regulatory bodies overseeing Apex Custody’s activities?
I. The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is responsible for the firm’s licensing and for enforcing conduct requirements related to its custody of assets for SFC-authorized funds.
II. The Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) is the primary regulator for all operational aspects of the firm’s securities settlement processes.
III. The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) imposes specific approval criteria and ongoing obligations on the firm for its role as a custodian for MPF schemes.
IV. Hong Kong Exchanges and Clearing Limited (HKEX) is responsible for the periodic review and approval of the firm’s internal anti-money laundering (AML) policies.CorrectThis question assesses the understanding of the distinct roles of key regulatory bodies in Hong Kong overseeing a firm that provides depositary services.
Statement I is correct. The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is the primary regulator for licensed corporations in Hong Kong. It grants licenses for regulated activities and enforces the Code of Conduct for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the SFC. For firms acting as custodians or trustees for SFC-authorized collective investment schemes, the SFC imposes specific requirements under the Code on Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds.
Statement II is incorrect. The Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) is the primary regulator for Authorized Institutions (i.e., banks) and oversees the stability of the financial system, including payment and settlement systems like the Central Moneymarkets Unit (CMU). However, the SFC is the direct conduct regulator for a licensed corporation’s activities, including its operational processes related to securities.
Statement III is correct. The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) is the statutory body responsible for regulating the MPF system. It sets out specific approval criteria, guidelines, and ongoing obligations for service providers to MPF schemes, including custodians, under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance. An entity must be specifically approved by the MPFA to act as a custodian for an MPF scheme.
Statement IV is incorrect. While licensed corporations must comply with the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance, the SFC is the authority responsible for issuing guidelines and monitoring compliance with AML/CFT requirements for the entities it licenses. Hong Kong Exchanges and Clearing Limited (HKEX) is the operator of the stock and futures markets and is not the primary regulator for a custodian’s internal AML policies. Therefore, statements I and III are correct.
IncorrectThis question assesses the understanding of the distinct roles of key regulatory bodies in Hong Kong overseeing a firm that provides depositary services.
Statement I is correct. The Securities and Futures Commission (SFC) is the primary regulator for licensed corporations in Hong Kong. It grants licenses for regulated activities and enforces the Code of Conduct for Persons Licensed by or Registered with the SFC. For firms acting as custodians or trustees for SFC-authorized collective investment schemes, the SFC imposes specific requirements under the Code on Unit Trusts and Mutual Funds.
Statement II is incorrect. The Hong Kong Monetary Authority (HKMA) is the primary regulator for Authorized Institutions (i.e., banks) and oversees the stability of the financial system, including payment and settlement systems like the Central Moneymarkets Unit (CMU). However, the SFC is the direct conduct regulator for a licensed corporation’s activities, including its operational processes related to securities.
Statement III is correct. The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Authority (MPFA) is the statutory body responsible for regulating the MPF system. It sets out specific approval criteria, guidelines, and ongoing obligations for service providers to MPF schemes, including custodians, under the Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes Ordinance. An entity must be specifically approved by the MPFA to act as a custodian for an MPF scheme.
Statement IV is incorrect. While licensed corporations must comply with the Anti-Money Laundering and Counter-Terrorist Financing Ordinance, the SFC is the authority responsible for issuing guidelines and monitoring compliance with AML/CFT requirements for the entities it licenses. Hong Kong Exchanges and Clearing Limited (HKEX) is the operator of the stock and futures markets and is not the primary regulator for a custodian’s internal AML policies. Therefore, statements I and III are correct.




