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HKSI Paper 6 (Regulation of Asset Management) English Free Trial
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
A Fund Manager should ensure which of the following in regards to order allocation?
I. Maintain written guidelines, including monetary limits
II. Intended allocations are recorded prior to the transactions
III. Executed transactions are allocated promptly in accordance with prior intentions
IV. All client orders are allocated fairlyCorrect
A Fund Manager should ensure that:
(a) all client orders are allocated fairly;
(b) intended allocations are recorded prior to the transactions; and
(c) executed transactions are allocated promptly in accordance with prior intentions, except where any change would not disadvantage the client. The reasons for such change should be documented.Incorrect
A Fund Manager should ensure that:
(a) all client orders are allocated fairly;
(b) intended allocations are recorded prior to the transactions; and
(c) executed transactions are allocated promptly in accordance with prior intentions, except where any change would not disadvantage the client. The reasons for such change should be documented. -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Cross trades between client accounts should only be done in the following ways except?
Correct
Cross trades between client accounts should only be done:
(a) if the trades are in the best interests of both clients and in line with their investment objectives and restrictions;
(b) the trades are done at arm’s length at current market value;
(c) the activities are disclosed to both clients; and
(d) the reasons are documented prior to executing the trades.Incorrect
Cross trades between client accounts should only be done:
(a) if the trades are in the best interests of both clients and in line with their investment objectives and restrictions;
(b) the trades are done at arm’s length at current market value;
(c) the activities are disclosed to both clients; and
(d) the reasons are documented prior to executing the trades. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
The message of the warning statements should be “clear and not disguised” and state the following except?
Correct
The message of the warning statements should be “clear and not disguised” and state that:
(a) investment involves risk;
(b) the offering document should be read for further details, including the risk factors;
(c) where past performance is presented, such information is not indicative of future results;
(d) where the advertisement is exempted from pre-vetting and authorisation by the SFC pursuant to the SFO, the advertisement has not been reviewed by the SFC;
(e) where the CIS is described as authorised by the SFC, this does not imply official recommendation; and
(f) where the CIS has special features or involves higher risk, a warning appropriate to the degree of risk inherent in the CIS is given.Incorrect
The message of the warning statements should be “clear and not disguised” and state that:
(a) investment involves risk;
(b) the offering document should be read for further details, including the risk factors;
(c) where past performance is presented, such information is not indicative of future results;
(d) where the advertisement is exempted from pre-vetting and authorisation by the SFC pursuant to the SFO, the advertisement has not been reviewed by the SFC;
(e) where the CIS is described as authorised by the SFC, this does not imply official recommendation; and
(f) where the CIS has special features or involves higher risk, a warning appropriate to the degree of risk inherent in the CIS is given. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Acceptable soft dollar goods and services include the following except?
Correct
Acceptable soft dollar goods and services include:
(a) research and advisory services;
(b) economic and political analysis;
(c) portfolio analysis including valuation and performance measurement;
(d) market analysis, data and quotation services;
(e) computer hardware and software incidental to the above goods and services; and
(f) clearing and custodian services and investment-related publications.Incorrect
Acceptable soft dollar goods and services include:
(a) research and advisory services;
(b) economic and political analysis;
(c) portfolio analysis including valuation and performance measurement;
(d) market analysis, data and quotation services;
(e) computer hardware and software incidental to the above goods and services; and
(f) clearing and custodian services and investment-related publications. -
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Of relevance to intermediaries engaged in asset management are the requirements to keep such accounting, trading and other records as are sufficient to the following except?
Correct
Of relevance to intermediaries engaged in asset management are the requirements to:
(a) keep such accounting, trading and other records as are sufficient to:
(i) explain and reflect the financial position and the operations of its business;
(ii) enable financial statements to be prepared from time to time which give a true and fair view of its financial affairs;
(iii) account for all client assets that it receives or holds;
(iv) enable all movements of such client assets to be traced through its accounting systems and stock holding systems;
(v) demonstrate compliance with the relevant provisions of the Client Money Rules and the Client Securities Rules, and that internal control systems are in place to ensure such compliance;
(vi) reconcile each month any differences that arise during that month in its balances or positions with external parties; and
(vii) enable it to readily establish whether it has complied with the FRR;
(b) keep records to show particulars of all:
(i) money received and how it was applied, all income received and expenses paid;
(ii) for transactions carried out, particulars of the initiators, orders, instructions, trading, settlement and accounting entries (there should be a full audit trail); and
(iii) client agreements and discretionary account agreements;
(c) keep records in such a manner as to enable an audit to be conveniently and properly carried out; and
(d) make entries in the records in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.Incorrect
Of relevance to intermediaries engaged in asset management are the requirements to:
(a) keep such accounting, trading and other records as are sufficient to:
(i) explain and reflect the financial position and the operations of its business;
(ii) enable financial statements to be prepared from time to time which give a true and fair view of its financial affairs;
(iii) account for all client assets that it receives or holds;
(iv) enable all movements of such client assets to be traced through its accounting systems and stock holding systems;
(v) demonstrate compliance with the relevant provisions of the Client Money Rules and the Client Securities Rules, and that internal control systems are in place to ensure such compliance;
(vi) reconcile each month any differences that arise during that month in its balances or positions with external parties; and
(vii) enable it to readily establish whether it has complied with the FRR;
(b) keep records to show particulars of all:
(i) money received and how it was applied, all income received and expenses paid;
(ii) for transactions carried out, particulars of the initiators, orders, instructions, trading, settlement and accounting entries (there should be a full audit trail); and
(iii) client agreements and discretionary account agreements;
(c) keep records in such a manner as to enable an audit to be conveniently and properly carried out; and
(d) make entries in the records in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
When an intermediary enters into a transaction, it is required to prepare and provide a contract note to the client, subject to which of the following?
I. It may prepare a consolidated contract note, if several contracts are executed on the same day, and provided that the client does not instruct otherwise.
II. It may prepare a consolidated contract note a consolidated contract note, if several contracts are executed on the same week.
III. It may prepare individual or consolidated account notes.
IV. It may consolidate the contract notes in respect of all contracts entered into on the same business day into the statement account for that day.Correct
When an intermediary enters into a transaction, it is required to prepare and provide a contract note to the client, subject to the following:
(a) it may prepare a consolidated contract note, if several contracts are executed on the same day, and provided that the client does not instruct otherwise; or
(b) instead of preparing and providing individual or consolidated contract notes, it may consolidate the contract notes in respect of all contracts entered into on the same business day into the statement account for that day.Incorrect
When an intermediary enters into a transaction, it is required to prepare and provide a contract note to the client, subject to the following:
(a) it may prepare a consolidated contract note, if several contracts are executed on the same day, and provided that the client does not instruct otherwise; or
(b) instead of preparing and providing individual or consolidated contract notes, it may consolidate the contract notes in respect of all contracts entered into on the same business day into the statement account for that day. -
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
An intermediary should provide at the request of a client which of the following information?
I. Market trends of any particular trade
II. Monthly statements of account
III. Daily statements of account
IV. Copies of the contract notesCorrect
An intermediary should provide at the request of a client:
(a) copies of contract notes, daily statements of account, receipts and monthly statements of account, or make these available for inspection; and
(b) a statement of account on the same day as the request, giving up-to-date details of the account.Incorrect
An intermediary should provide at the request of a client:
(a) copies of contract notes, daily statements of account, receipts and monthly statements of account, or make these available for inspection; and
(b) a statement of account on the same day as the request, giving up-to-date details of the account. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Under s. 162, SFO, the appointed auditor has extensive powers to do the following except?
Correct
Under s. 162, SFO, the appointed auditor has extensive powers to:
(a) examine on oath officers, employees, agents and auditors of the target entities;
(b) require all these persons and any persons holding client assets on behalf of the licensed corporation to produce relevant records and explain their contents; and
(c) exercise these powers in respect of any business carried on by the licensed corporation, if this is relevant to the auditIncorrect
Under s. 162, SFO, the appointed auditor has extensive powers to:
(a) examine on oath officers, employees, agents and auditors of the target entities;
(b) require all these persons and any persons holding client assets on behalf of the licensed corporation to produce relevant records and explain their contents; and
(c) exercise these powers in respect of any business carried on by the licensed corporation, if this is relevant to the audit -
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
A licensed corporation may be subject to the reporting obligation as a result of which of the following?
I. Actions that causes a change to the terms and conditions or parties to a transaction.
II. Entering into a specified OTC derivative transaction as a counterparty.
III. Losing its exempt status.
IV. Conducting a transaction in a specified OTC derivative transaction “in Hong Kong” on behalf of an affiliate.Correct
A licensed corporation may be subject to the reporting obligation as a result of:
(a) entering into a specified OTC derivative transaction as a counterparty;
(b) conducting a transaction in a specified OTC derivative transaction “in Hong Kong” on behalf of an affiliate; or
(c) losing its exempt status.Incorrect
A licensed corporation may be subject to the reporting obligation as a result of:
(a) entering into a specified OTC derivative transaction as a counterparty;
(b) conducting a transaction in a specified OTC derivative transaction “in Hong Kong” on behalf of an affiliate; or
(c) losing its exempt status. -
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
The SFC exercises its regulatory mandate to supervise the industry through several mechanisms such as the following except?
Correct
The SFC exercises its regulatory mandate to supervise the industry through several mechanisms:
(a) licensing: that only fit and proper persons are permitted to engage in regulated activities;
(b) supervision and monitoring: that intermediaries comply on an ongoing basis with applicable laws and regulations;
(c) marketing of investment products: that appropriate standards are adopted through the authorisation of CISs and structured products; and
(d) discipline: that persons in breach of laws or regulations are suitably dealt with.Incorrect
The SFC exercises its regulatory mandate to supervise the industry through several mechanisms:
(a) licensing: that only fit and proper persons are permitted to engage in regulated activities;
(b) supervision and monitoring: that intermediaries comply on an ongoing basis with applicable laws and regulations;
(c) marketing of investment products: that appropriate standards are adopted through the authorisation of CISs and structured products; and
(d) discipline: that persons in breach of laws or regulations are suitably dealt with. -
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
An individual trustee must have the following requirement in accordance to the MPFA except?
Correct
An individual trustee must:
(a) ordinarily reside in Hong Kong;
(b) be of good reputation and character and not have committed any offence involving fraud or dishonesty; and
(c) provide a performance guarantee in the form of an insurance policy or a bank guarantee covering any failure to perform or other breach of duty, the value of which is 10% of the net asset value (“NAV”) of the scheme up to a maximum of HK$10 million.Incorrect
An individual trustee must:
(a) ordinarily reside in Hong Kong;
(b) be of good reputation and character and not have committed any offence involving fraud or dishonesty; and
(c) provide a performance guarantee in the form of an insurance policy or a bank guarantee covering any failure to perform or other breach of duty, the value of which is 10% of the net asset value (“NAV”) of the scheme up to a maximum of HK$10 million. -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Following the registration of any intermediary, the MPFA will assign the which of the following as the frontline regulator for the purposes of the MPFSO?
I. SFC
II. IA
III. HKMA
IV. OSCOCorrect
Following the registration of any intermediary, the MPFA will assign the SFC, HKMA or IA as the frontline regulator for the purposes of the MPFSO.
Incorrect
Following the registration of any intermediary, the MPFA will assign the SFC, HKMA or IA as the frontline regulator for the purposes of the MPFSO.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
The SFC may on application approve for a licensed corporation (s. 134, SFO and s. 58, FRR) for which of the following?
I. A declaration statement of financial returns and, or capital loss.
II. A modification or waiver in the calculation of the licensed corporation’s liquid capital.
III. Redeemable shares and subordinated loans, with the effect that they are excluded from ranking liabilities.
IV. The adoption of an accounting principle other than one of those generally accepted.Correct
The SFC may on application approve for a licensed corporation (s. 134, SFO and s. 58, FRR):
(a) redeemable shares and subordinated loans, with the effect that they are excluded from ranking liabilities;
(b) a modification or waiver in the calculation of the licensed corporation’s liquid capital; and
(c) the adoption of an accounting principle other than one of those generally accepted.Incorrect
The SFC may on application approve for a licensed corporation (s. 134, SFO and s. 58, FRR):
(a) redeemable shares and subordinated loans, with the effect that they are excluded from ranking liabilities;
(b) a modification or waiver in the calculation of the licensed corporation’s liquid capital; and
(c) the adoption of an accounting principle other than one of those generally accepted. -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Subject to assessment and compliance arrangements usually undertaken in connection with the client on-boarding process, the requirements that may be waived in regards to information about the clients include which of the following?
I. The need to establish the client’s financial situation, investment experience and investment objectives.
II. The need to ensure the suitability of a recommendation or positive invitation.
III. The need to assess the client’s knowledge of derivatives.
IV. The need to ensure the suitability of a transaction in a complex product.Correct
Subject to assessment and compliance arrangements usually undertaken in connection with the client on-boarding process, the requirements that may be waived in are:
(b) information about clients:
(i) the need to establish the client’s financial situation, investment experience and investment objectives (except in relation to providing advice on corporate finance);
(ii) the need to ensure the suitability of a recommendation or positive invitation; and
(iii) the need to assess the client’s knowledge of derivatives;Incorrect
Subject to assessment and compliance arrangements usually undertaken in connection with the client on-boarding process, the requirements that may be waived in are:
(b) information about clients:
(i) the need to establish the client’s financial situation, investment experience and investment objectives (except in relation to providing advice on corporate finance);
(ii) the need to ensure the suitability of a recommendation or positive invitation; and
(iii) the need to assess the client’s knowledge of derivatives; -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Features of the senior management’s role in an intermediary structure include which of the following?
I. It’s the assumption of full responsibility for the operations.
II. Assignment of management and supervisory functions to suitably qualified and experienced persons.
III. Setting up detailed definitions of authorities for key positions, policies, and procedures for necessary authorizations.
IV. Identification of clear reporting lines with the assignment of supervisory and reporting responsibilities.Correct
Features of the senior management’s role in such a structure are:
(a) Its assumption of full responsibility for the operations
(b) Setting up detailed definitions of authorities for key positions, policies, and procedures for necessary authorizationsIncorrect
Features of the senior management’s role in such a structure are:
(a) Its assumption of full responsibility for the operations
(b) Setting up detailed definitions of authorities for key positions, policies, and procedures for necessary authorizations -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
The six data protection principles include the following except?
Correct
The six data protection principles
(a) Lawful purpose
(b) Accuracy and retention
(c) Use
(d) Security
(e) Policies
(f) AccessIncorrect
The six data protection principles
(a) Lawful purpose
(b) Accuracy and retention
(c) Use
(d) Security
(e) Policies
(f) Access -
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
UNSCRs are normally implemented in Hong Kong under the which of the following following that enables sanctions to be imposed on persons in breach of the relevant provisions?
Correct
UNSCRs are normally implemented in Hong Kong under the UNSO, which enables sanctions to be imposed on persons in breach of the relevant provisions.
Incorrect
UNSCRs are normally implemented in Hong Kong under the UNSO, which enables sanctions to be imposed on persons in breach of the relevant provisions.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Which of the following key facts are included in customer risk?
I. Means and types of payment
II. Unduly complex ownership structure without good reason
III. Background or profile of the customer
IV. Nature, scope, and location of the customer’s business that generates the funds/assetsCorrect
Customer risks;
(i) background or profile of the customer;
(ii) unduly complex ownership structure without good reason;
(iii) nature, scope, and location of the customer’s business that generate the funds/assets, having regard to sensitive or high-risk activities;Incorrect
Customer risks;
(i) background or profile of the customer;
(ii) unduly complex ownership structure without good reason;
(iii) nature, scope, and location of the customer’s business that generate the funds/assets, having regard to sensitive or high-risk activities; -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
The following statements in regards to the Hong Kong Exchanges and Clearing Limited is/are accurate with the exception of?
Correct
The Hong Kong Exchanges and Clearing Limited (“HKEX”) is a recognised exchange controller under s. 59, SFO. The SEHK and the Hong Kong Futures Exchange Limited (“HKFE”) are recognised under s. 19, SFO as exchange companies that may operate a stock market and a futures market in Hong Kong respectively. The three clearing houses concerned with products traded on the SEHK and the HKFE are recognised under s. 37, SFO. The HKEX is responsible for ensuring, among other things, the operation of an orderly, informed and fair market in securities and futures contracts in the exchange companies it operates
Incorrect
The Hong Kong Exchanges and Clearing Limited (“HKEX”) is a recognised exchange controller under s. 59, SFO. The SEHK and the Hong Kong Futures Exchange Limited (“HKFE”) are recognised under s. 19, SFO as exchange companies that may operate a stock market and a futures market in Hong Kong respectively. The three clearing houses concerned with products traded on the SEHK and the HKFE are recognised under s. 37, SFO. The HKEX is responsible for ensuring, among other things, the operation of an orderly, informed and fair market in securities and futures contracts in the exchange companies it operates
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Which of the following regulate and supervise intermediaries operating within their respective jurisdictions, and with considerable overlap in the regulatory regime for intermediaries engaged in the asset management industry?
I. The IA
II. The MPFA
III. The HKMA
IV. The SFCCorrect
The SFC and MPFA all regulate and supervise intermediaries operating within their respective jurisdictions, and there is considerable overlap in the regulatory regime for intermediaries engaged in the asset management industry.
Incorrect
The SFC and MPFA all regulate and supervise intermediaries operating within their respective jurisdictions, and there is considerable overlap in the regulatory regime for intermediaries engaged in the asset management industry.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Which of the following sets out detailed requirements for the operation of MPF schemes including requirements relating to trustees and other service providers, enrolment, contributions, portability, withdrawal of accrued benefit arrangements, and investment requirements?
Correct
The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes (General) Regulation sets out detailed requirements for the operation of MPF schemes including requirements relating to trustees and other service providers, enrolment, contributions, portability, withdrawal of accrued benefit arrangements, and investment requirements.
Incorrect
The Mandatory Provident Fund Schemes (General) Regulation sets out detailed requirements for the operation of MPF schemes including requirements relating to trustees and other service providers, enrolment, contributions, portability, withdrawal of accrued benefit arrangements, and investment requirements.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
The ORSO was enacted prior to the setting up of the MPF to do the following except?
Correct
The ORSO was enacted prior to the setting up of the MPF to:
(a) regulate the voluntarily established ORSO schemes operating in and from Hong Kong;
(b) ensure that the ORSO schemes are properly administered and funded; and
(c) provide greater certainty that retirement scheme benefits accruing to employees under the schemes will be properly paidIncorrect
The ORSO was enacted prior to the setting up of the MPF to:
(a) regulate the voluntarily established ORSO schemes operating in and from Hong Kong;
(b) ensure that the ORSO schemes are properly administered and funded; and
(c) provide greater certainty that retirement scheme benefits accruing to employees under the schemes will be properly paid -
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
The specific requirements for handling client assets are covered by which of the following subsidiary legislation?
I. Client Money Rules
II. Client Securities Rules
III. Client Futures Rules
IV. Client Funding RulesCorrect
The specific requirements for handling client assets are covered by subsidiary legislation: the Securities and Futures (Client Securities) Rules (“Client Securities Rules”) and the Securities and Futures (Client Money) Rules (“Client Money Rules”).
Incorrect
The specific requirements for handling client assets are covered by subsidiary legislation: the Securities and Futures (Client Securities) Rules (“Client Securities Rules”) and the Securities and Futures (Client Money) Rules (“Client Money Rules”).
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
As regards licensed corporations, the SFC regards the following persons as being senior management except?
Correct
As regards licensed corporations, the SFC regards the following persons as being senior management:
(a) all directors of the corporation (including any shadow director);
(b) the persons appointed as responsible officers of the corporation; and
(c) each individual who undertakes and is principally responsible for (either alone or together with others) any one or more of the eight MICs, which are as follows:
(i) overall management oversight;
(ii) key business line;
(iii) operational control and review;
(iv) risk management;
(v) finance and accounting;
(vi) information technology;
(vii) compliance; and
(viii) anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing.Incorrect
As regards licensed corporations, the SFC regards the following persons as being senior management:
(a) all directors of the corporation (including any shadow director);
(b) the persons appointed as responsible officers of the corporation; and
(c) each individual who undertakes and is principally responsible for (either alone or together with others) any one or more of the eight MICs, which are as follows:
(i) overall management oversight;
(ii) key business line;
(iii) operational control and review;
(iv) risk management;
(v) finance and accounting;
(vi) information technology;
(vii) compliance; and
(viii) anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing. -
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Which of the following aspects to the definition for securities and futures contracts is/are accurate?
I. What is positively defined as a CIS
II. What is excluded
III. What is prescribed by the Financial Secretary
IV. What is expected in the HKSICorrect
the definitions for securities and futures contracts, there are three aspects to the definition:
(a) what is positively defined as a CIS;
(b) what is excluded; and
(c) what is prescribed by the Financial Secretary (under s. 393, SFO).Incorrect
the definitions for securities and futures contracts, there are three aspects to the definition:
(a) what is positively defined as a CIS;
(b) what is excluded; and
(c) what is prescribed by the Financial Secretary (under s. 393, SFO). -
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Which of the following is/are exemptions provided for in s. 103, SFO which permit the issue of certain documents and the acts of special groups?
I. Advertisements, invitations and documents issued by certain licensed corporations.
II. Listing documents and certain other offer documents in relation to securities traded on a recognised stock market.
III. A prospectus that complies with, or is exempt from, the Companies Ordinance.
IV. Advertisements etc. in respect of securities or interests in CISs intended to be disposed of only to PIs.Correct
There are several exemptions provided for in s. 103, SFO which permit the issue of certain documents and the acts of special groups, including the following:
(a) a prospectus that complies with, or is exempt from, the Companies (Winding Up and Miscellaneous Provisions) Ordinance;
(b) listing documents and certain other offer documents in relation to securities traded on a recognised stock market;
(c) advertisements, invitations and documents issued by certain licensed corporations (in the case of securities, they must hold a Type 1, Type 4 or Type 6 licence; and in that of futures contracts, they must hold a Type 2 or Type 5 licence);
(d) advertisements etc. in respect of securities or interests in CISs intended to be disposed of only to PIs.Incorrect
There are several exemptions provided for in s. 103, SFO which permit the issue of certain documents and the acts of special groups, including the following:
(a) a prospectus that complies with, or is exempt from, the Companies (Winding Up and Miscellaneous Provisions) Ordinance;
(b) listing documents and certain other offer documents in relation to securities traded on a recognised stock market;
(c) advertisements, invitations and documents issued by certain licensed corporations (in the case of securities, they must hold a Type 1, Type 4 or Type 6 licence; and in that of futures contracts, they must hold a Type 2 or Type 5 licence);
(d) advertisements etc. in respect of securities or interests in CISs intended to be disposed of only to PIs. -
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Each licensed corporation is required to do the following except?
Correct
Each licensed corporation is required to:
(a) appoint not less than two responsible officers, at least one of whom must be an executive director (see Note 1 below) (s. 125, SFO);
(b) ensure that every individual executive director of the licensed corporation is approved as a responsible officer (s. 125, SFO); and
(c) ensure that it has, for each regulated activity, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the regulated activity for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong (s. 118(1)(a)(ii), SFOIncorrect
Each licensed corporation is required to:
(a) appoint not less than two responsible officers, at least one of whom must be an executive director (see Note 1 below) (s. 125, SFO);
(b) ensure that every individual executive director of the licensed corporation is approved as a responsible officer (s. 125, SFO); and
(c) ensure that it has, for each regulated activity, at least one responsible officer available at all times to supervise the business of the regulated activity for which it is licensed, and who is based in Hong Kong (s. 118(1)(a)(ii), SFO -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Discretionary account manager may receive and retain cash or money rebates in relation to client transactions, provided which of the following occurs?
I. The client has consented to this in writing.
II. The brokerage rates are not in excess of customary full-service brokerage rates.
III. The rebates and their approximate values are disclosed to the client.
IV. The goods or services are of demonstrable benefit to the receiver’s client.Correct
A discretionary account manager may receive and retain cash or money rebates in relation to client transactions, provided that:
(a) the client has consented to this in writing;
(b) the brokerage rates are not in excess of customary full-service brokerage rates; and
(c) the rebates and their approximate values are disclosed to the clientIncorrect
A discretionary account manager may receive and retain cash or money rebates in relation to client transactions, provided that:
(a) the client has consented to this in writing;
(b) the brokerage rates are not in excess of customary full-service brokerage rates; and
(c) the rebates and their approximate values are disclosed to the client -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
The Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training set out the SFC’s expectations regarding CPT to foster the fitness and properness of the licensed or registered persons through periodic training to enhance which of the following?
I. Enhance their technical skills.
II. Enhance their professional expertise.
III. Enhance their ethical standards.
IV. Enhance their regulatory knowledge.Correct
The Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training set out the SFC’s expectations regarding CPT to foster the fitness and properness of the licensed or registered persons through periodic training to enhance their technical skills and their regulatory knowledge.
Incorrect
The Guidelines on Continuous Professional Training set out the SFC’s expectations regarding CPT to foster the fitness and properness of the licensed or registered persons through periodic training to enhance their technical skills and their regulatory knowledge.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
The Code of Conduct applies to which of the following?
I. Persons licensed by the SFC
II. Persons registered with the SFC
III. Corporations licensed by the SFC
IV. Auditors and Lawyers with SFC clearanceCorrect
The Code of Conduct applies to all persons licensed by or registered with the SFC, both corporations and individuals and, in that sense, is the primary code on which all others are based.
Incorrect
The Code of Conduct applies to all persons licensed by or registered with the SFC, both corporations and individuals and, in that sense, is the primary code on which all others are based.
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